Re: 1 Cor 14:34 -- LALEIN

From: yochanan bitan (
Date: Thu Sep 09 1999 - 03:19:10 EDT

>>I interpret the infinitive present tense LALEIN as meaning "be talking,"
>>and not as "talking."

>Actually- your translation would require a present participle or present
>tense verb... the infinitive really needs to be translated with "to talk"
>"to speak".
>but, for a simple historical reality... to wit- churches, like synagogues,
>divided the men on one side and the women on the other.

writer one above was trying to enunicate the aspect in english. if writer
two wanted to use fully infinitival glossing then he should propose "to be
talking" "to be speaking", but writer one was already clear in english.

on the history, the divided synogogue appears to be a talmudic development
and may not have been part of the first century. see especially chana
safrai in jerusalem perspective (english) [].
the explanation of talking could still work, though, because even talking
in small families scattered around a room can be distracting.

randall buth

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