From: Mark Markham (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Sep 09 1999 - 04:37:55 EDT
Since the word speak is used in this section regarding tongues and prophecy
is it error to see this as a prohibition for these actions. Just look at
the context and the Greek here-- ignore ch. 11 and other ergs in Timothy
etc. What does this passage say and in it's context what does it mean? BTW
the B-Greek archives have much information on this passage for
----- Original Message -----
From: yochanan bitan <ButhFam@compuserve.com>
To: Biblical Greek <firstname.lastname@example.org>
Cc: b-greek <email@example.com>
Sent: Thursday, September 09, 1999 9:19 AM
Subject: Re: 1 Cor 14:34 -- LALEIN
> >>I interpret the infinitive present tense LALEIN as meaning "be talking,"
> >>and not as "talking."
> >Actually- your translation would require a present participle or present
> >tense verb... the infinitive really needs to be translated with "to talk"
> >"to speak".
> >but, for a simple historical reality... to wit- churches, like
> >divided the men on one side and the women on the other.
> writer one above was trying to enunicate the aspect in english. if writer
> two wanted to use fully infinitival glossing then he should propose "to be
> talking" "to be speaking", but writer one was already clear in english.
> on the history, the divided synogogue appears to be a talmudic development
> and may not have been part of the first century. see especially chana
> safrai in jerusalem perspective (english) [JerusalemPerspective.com].
> the explanation of talking could still work, though, because even talking
> in small families scattered around a room can be distracting.
> randall buth
> B-Greek home page: http://sunsite.unc.edu/bgreek
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