Date: Fri Mar 03 2000 - 12:14:57 EST
On Fri, 03 Mar 2000 23:21:19 +1100 Ward Powers <firstname.lastname@example.org>
> So here is the issue: On what basis (if any) can we conclude that
> John uses PISTEUW in a context such as John 8;30-31 to mean
> some kind of "believing" other than what he means in John 3:15
> -18 (et al.)? That is, to mean a "believing" which is not
> "spirit-generated" but which can be used in reference to people
> described as children of the devil (8:42-44) and who do not belong
> to God (8:47). Are there any other passages where John clearly
> uses PISTEUW in such a way?
> I tend to think that when John uses PISTEUW it is in reference to
> saving faith. Do I need to modify this understanding of his use of
> this word?
How about on the basis of the usage of PISTEUW in Jn 2:23-25
where POLLOI EPISTEUSAN EIS TO ONOMA AUTOU, but
where also AUTOS DE IHSOUS OUK EPISTEUEN AUTON
AUTOIS, because (hOTI ... GAR) AUTOS ... GINWSKEN
TI HN EN TWi ANQRWPWi.
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