From: Steven Craig Miller (
Date: Wed Mar 08 2000 - 07:56:34 EST

<x-flowed iso-8859-1>To: Daniel RiaŌo,

<< The first instances of this word are 1Ep.Cor.6.9 and 1Tim 1.9 ... All
the testimonies appear to belong to Christian literature, and its use is
always derogatory. The alleged testimony of Orac.Syb.2.73 is to the verb
A)RSENOKOITE/W, not to the noun. >>

Why would it be significant that the passages from the Sibylline Oracles
(2.73) uses the cognate verb rather than the noun? After all, such a verb
derives from the noun, yes? If one could date this passage of the Sibylline
Oracles to 2 BCE, it would imply that ARSENOKOITHS is pre-Christian (but
nonetheless Jewish in origin). But since this passage of the Sibylline
Oracles was heavily redacted by a Christian, one cannot assume that this
passage is pre-Christian.

-Steven Craig Miller
Alton, Illinois (USA)
FWIW: I'm neither a clergy-person, nor an academic (and I have no post-grad

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