From: Steven Lo Vullo (email@example.com)
Date: Sun Mar 19 2000 - 18:03:03 EST
How then would you explain texts like John 3:19, 12:43, 2 Timothy 4:10, and
1 John 2:15 if in fact AGAPAW and its derivatives are ALWAYS (caps yours)
used in the sense of self-giving love that requires and expects nothing in
Also, since the LXX informed so much of the word usage of the NT, and is,
like the NT, also Hellenistic Greek, how can its database be irrelevant to
study of the NT?
----- Original Message -----
From: Jim West <firstname.lastname@example.org>
To: Biblical Greek <email@example.com>
Sent: Sunday, March 19, 2000 11:16 AM
Subject: Re: A question from a novice!
> At 09:53 AM 3/19/00 -0500, you wrote:
> >In a message dated 3/19/2000 9:30:07 AM Central Daylight Time,
> >firstname.lastname@example.org writes:
> > I cannot pinpoint to it, but I sort of remember that in LXX,
> > AGAPAW is frequently used to express the love relationship
> > between men and women, even the one that is quite selfish.
> > If so, on what ground did you consider AGAPH as selfless love, self
> > sacrificing
> > love? >>
> because thats how the NT uses it. The original question did not ask about
> LXX usage- but about NT.
> Words have usage- not meaning. Context is all important for determining
> meaning. When the NT uses AGAPAW and its derivatives it is ALWAYS in the
> sense of self giving love which requires and expects nothing in return.
> That the LXX uses the word differntly is TOTALLY irrelevant to its NT
> Jim West, ThD
> B-Greek home page: http://sunsite.unc.edu/bgreek
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