From: Harold R. Holmyard III (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Mar 20 2000 - 12:23:40 EST
You write about the two verbs for love in John 21:15-17: "Keeping the
two words distinct helps me understand this passage." The distinction helps
you to interpret the passage, but the passage has other interpretations
which are equally plausible. I am uncertain of the force of the two verbs,
but the fact that Jesus asked a third time about Peter's love seems
central, as you acknowledge.
The point you make about the choice of PHILEW in John 11:36 would be
valid if PHILEW were, as often said, love for a friend. Jesus was weeping
over a friend, and that is what observers would see.
John 10:17 does not involve the idea that the 'participant loves and
takes action'. The Father did not love and take action, giving the command.
The Father commanded and then loved the Son because He obeyed the command
to lay down his life."
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