[b-greek] Re: perfect PROISTHMI...

From: Maurice A. O'Sullivan (mauros@iol.ie)
Date: Thu Jul 06 2000 - 06:57:56 EDT

<x-flowed>At 10:37 06/07/00, Roe wrote:
>Why do most (all?) versions translate PROISTHMI in the present tense

Because, as Smyth succinctly puts it,:
>>When the perfect marks the enduring result, rather than the completed
act, it may often be translated by the present>>

A common example given is OIDA (I have discovered = I know )

For this and other examples, you can read section 1946, on the _ perfecta
praesentia_ and 1947, on the _intensive_ perfects,
Go to:

Or you may care to use the Berlin mirror-site:

and enter 1946 in the search box.
Maurice A. O'Sullivan [ Bray, Ireland ]

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