From: yochanan bitan-buth (ButhFam@compuserve.com)
Date: Tue Oct 03 2000 - 06:17:21 EDT
>Are these IOUDAIOIS fully committed (faithful) Jews? Or are they
The question is a bit strange and feels like its being read from "outside".
[as a pseudo-dichotomy, like "did you take the bus to school, or did you
bring your lunch?"]
At least from cultural/linguistic remains of the 1st and 2nd century,
it is difficult to conceive of a first century Jewish believer in Yeshua as
zealous for the Law.
The "law issue" was an issue for the gentile believers not Jewish
The issue hits at the base of how a language and culture are twined
The Greek NT becomes a bit anomolous because the Greek language is being
used within a foreign culture (Judaism), especially the Gospels, though to
varying degrees the whole NT. Yet it has been interpreted within a mainly
Greek matrix for 1900 years.
The starting point or background from which the material is read directly
affects the final interpretation.
a parallel example:
In Matthew's parable of the vineyard, it is "given to another people". Most
assume that this means "to the gentiles", yet if Matthew is writing for a
sectarian Jewish Christian audience, e.g. post70, then he might be
referring to his own group, one that still thought it important 'not to
flee on Shabbat'.
ETOS KALON GENOITO SOI
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