[b-greek] Re: Smart's rule and John 20:28

From: Ilvgrammta@aol.com
Date: Mon Oct 23 2000 - 10:30:20 EDT

Hi Kevin,

In a message dated 00-10-23 09:43:53 EDT, cierpke@prodigy.net writes:

<<no observant Jew would have EVER blasphemed the name of God by say
 "My God.">>

I do not think that Dan Parker or Davies or "Smart" are contending that
Thomas simply said, "My God!" as certain folks are wont to do today, and in
this way, used the term QEOS ("God") in a profane or banal manner. As far as
I can tell, Dan seems to be saying that hO QEOS MOU in John 20:28 was spoken
to the Father whereas hO KURIOS MOU was addressed to the Son. So I do not see
how this view could be espousing blasphemy. In fact, Theodore of Mopsuestia
took the same stance on this issue, though his view was later condemned by
the second Council of Constantinople in 553 (if memory serves me correctly).
Of course, to be fair, Murray J. Harris ("Jesus as God") extensively treats
this subject in his book on the uses of QEOS vis-a'-vis Christ and he rejects
the interpretation advanced by Theodore and Davies. But I think that Harris
and others have too quickly dismissed Theodore's exegesis of John 20:28 and
I'm glad that scholars like Davies have taken another look at the Greek of
the passage. Based on that fact alone, I do not think that the Greek of John
20:28 makes either Dan's or Davies' suggestion an impossibility. If the
"Smart" rule is applicable and can stand up to scrutiny, there might be a
good case for reviving Theodore's explanation of John 20:28.

 <<Johannine Christology is sufficent developed to say that Thomas
 was addressing the risen Jesus as Deity. Doesn't sound too "Smart" to me >>

Johannine Christology is a sticky issue that I do not want to broach here.
Suffice to say that John's use of QEOS (when he employs it as a predicate for
Christ) may parallel Philo's use of QEOS vis-a'-vis the LOGOS in his writings.


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