[b-greek] RE: Gender...What!?

From: Iver Larsen (alice-iver_larsen@wycliffe.org)
Date: Wed Mar 28 2001 - 15:56:15 EST

> >
> > Have you found any grammar, parser or lexicon that takes EPISKOPHS as a
> > nominative feminine noun, parallel to EPISKOPOS?
> Yes:
> Barclay Newman's lexicon at the back of UBS GNT cites EPISKOPHS as the
> genitive of the feminine noun EPISKOPH. It was my error to say that
> EPISKOPHS and EPISKOPOS were exactly parallel. I was assuming that EPISKOPHS
> was in the nominative case like EPISKOPOS. It is true, as you say, that the
> nominative of EPISKOPHS is EPISKOPH.
> Also, the Friberg AGNT parses EPISKOPHS in 1 Tim 3:1 as noun, genitive,
> feminine, singular.
> It looks like we are left trying to determine if Friberg and Newman are
> wrong in parsing EPISKOPH as feminine.

Hi, Wayne.
There is no problem with EPISKOPH being a feminine noun and I did not intend to
imply that it wasn't. My point was that the form here is not nominative, but

Iver Larsen

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