Date: Thu Jun 28 2001 - 16:17:50 EDT
I have seen it stated that it is a logical fallacy when one assumes that a conditional statement is also true in the reverse as in "If A, then B is not equal to if non-A, then non-B) as described by Wallace on page 687. Could one also state that this is also the case for "if not B then not A"? Assume a third class conditional with EAN + subjunctive followed by an apodosis in the future.
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