Date: Thu Jun 28 2001 - 16:17:50 EDT
I have seen it stated that it is a logical fallacy when one assumes that a conditional statement is also true in the reverse as in "If A, then B is not equal to if non-A, then non-B) as described by Wallace on page 687. Could one also state that this is also the case for "if not B then not A"? Assume a third class conditional with EAN + subjunctive followed by an apodosis in the future.
B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [email@example.com]
To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu
To subscribe, send a message to firstname.lastname@example.org
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:37:00 EDT