[B-Greek] Mark 1:1

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Sun Mar 20 10:28:51 EDT 2011


I meant precisely what I said.  If you are referring to Metzger's _A Textual 
Commentary_, he says nothing regarding it whatsoever.  Even Tischendorf only 
comments on matters such as ἔρχομαι / ἔρχεται ERXOMAI / ERXETAI but says 
nothing regarding the presence or absence of the passage as a whole.

 george
gfsomsel 


… search for truth, hear truth, 
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, 
defend the truth till death.


- Jan Hus
_________ 




________________________________
From: Dony K. Donev <dony at cupandcross.com>
To: Biblical Greek' <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Sun, March 20, 2011 7:21:01 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Mark 1:1

Thanks for the replay. Perhaps you meant:

All MSS [do not] contain it. Metzger claims it is omitted in a* Q28^C /al/ which 
is a bit major.

At the same time, Michael Turton writes: "The term "gospel" (/euangelion/) seems 
to have been in general use as part of a standard phrase/arche tou 
euangeliou/(the beginning of the gospel) known from proclamations and 
inscriptions from the time of Augustus. The phrase "Son of God" (/theou hyios/) 
was also used of Roman emperors (Helms 1988, p28-9)."

Hense my question: Is it a simple addition OR a Roman proclamation formula
whereas the intended meaning was: "the Gospel .... OF the Son of God" ?


Dony


On 03/20/2011 10:03 AM, George F Somsel wrote:
> Ἀρχὴ τοῦ εὐαγγελίου Ὶησοῦ Χριστοῦ [υἱοῦ θεοῦ].
> ARXH TOU EUAGGELIOU IHSOU XRISTOU [hUIOU QEOU].
> I would take this to be an objective genitive, but I am reminded of the theme 
>song of the old "Mr. Ed" show "A horse is a horse, of course, of course ..."  
>Similarly, a genitive is a genitive so it's a matter of interpretation.  You say 
>"potaytoe" and I say "potahtoe."  As to the awkwardness of the ending υἱοῦ 
>θεοῦ hUIOU QEOU, what awkwardness?  The attestation is reasonably good, and I 
>would hesitate to exclude something solely because of my criticism of its 
>literary style -- particularly in a language other than my native language.  
>Admittedly, there are times when some text can appear glaringly obvious, but not 
>always.  I'm thinking particularly of Re 16.15 where we suddenly find the 
>announcement "Behold, I come as a thief ..."  What is so glaring about that is 
>that it simply seems as though it is dropped into the middle of an unrelated 
>matter.  Nevertheless, all Mss contain it and so it remains in the text.  Most 
>often changes are made in a text to smooth them out rather than to make them 
>more difficult.  The scribe seems to say, "I can write better Greek than that."
> 
> george
> gfsomsel
> 
> … search for truth, hear truth,
> learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth,
> defend the truth till death.
> 
> 
> - Jan Hus
> _________
> 
> 
> ------------------------------------------------------------------------
> *From:* Dony K. Donev <dony at cupandcross.com>
> *To:* Biblical Greek' <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>; wie at uni-bremen.de
> *Sent:* Sun, March 20, 2011 6:38:29 AM
> *Subject:* [B-Greek] Mark 1:1
> 
> This is rather a quick question on a first read of Mark 1:1:
> 
> Should the genitive "of Jesus Christ" be translated as a
> 
> possessive belonging to the "Gospel" in the first clause?
> 
> Also, isn't the clumsiness of the phrase, rather hanging at the end
> 
> sufficient proof for its later addition in B D W /al/
> 
> //
> 
> /Dony K. Donev/
> 
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