From: Arlie D. Rauch (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Mar 10 1996 - 23:37:40 EST
Perhaps we should not dismiss the view of Nikolaos Adamou, PH.D., as merely
traditional. I read somewhere that the early church fathers held the same
view. That in itself doesn't prove anything, but can we discover why they
did? There is practical wisdom in that view.
Does 1 Tim. 5:9 shed any light? It seems that what is claimed for 1 Tim.
3:2 would have to be claimed for 1 Tim. 5:9 also, since the grammatical
construction is identical.
Though again it doesn't prove anything, notice that marriage law regarding
the priests in Lev. 21 is more stringent than the general population. Is
it possible that marriage requirements for church elders be more stringent?
Arlie D. Rauch
Pastor at Community Bible Church, Glendive, MT
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