From: Lance Crimm (Lance_Crimm@daystar.com)
Date: Fri Jun 20 1997 - 09:26:38 EDT
RE>>John 6 and KAI EUQUS 6/20/97
I agree. I severely doubt that John employed EUQEWS from Mark's influence.
It was a word in the common greek langauage to express the idea he wanted
to express. Back to my original exegetical question: Why did John use this and
does it mean immediate in a sudden, temporal sense or as Zerwick would
tend to say that it was an action following a previous action?
I am leaning towards the former but wrestling whether all the uses in Mark
of EUQUS is consistent in my thinking. I look forward to hearing from all
so that I can gain a deeper understanding of how the original text applies to
our very lives.
Thanks so much,
Date: 6/19/97 8:55 PM
To: Lance Crimm
From: Carlton Winbery
Ben Crick wrote;
> There is much "Q" material John could have used, but he preferred to
> follow Mark. John never agrees with Matthew and/or Luke against Mark.
> CK=DDBarrett says there was "a permeation of the writer of John's mind by
> Mark"=DDbut "he never copies it". So there were the odd phrases which "sti=
> -=DDlike KAI EUQUS and EUQEWS.
It was unfortunate for Barrett that Dodd's books on John came out about the
same time and convinced most of the scholarly world that the Johnnine
writer did not know any of the Synoptics in written form. H.E. Dana wrote
The Ephesian Tradition, published 20 years earlier in 1940 that came to
essentially the same conclusions that Dodd did, though no one paid much
attention. I would doubt that the Johnnine use of EUQEWS was influenced by
Mark. Two years before Dana's book was published Percy Gardner-smith
argued rather convincingly for the independence or John.
Carlton L. Winbery
114 Beall St.
Pineville, LA 71360
=46ax (318) 442-4996
Phone 318 487-7241 Home 448-6103
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Date: Thu, 19 Jun 1997 19:49:44 +0400
From: Carlton Winbery <firstname.lastname@example.org>
Subject: Re: John 6 and KAI EUQUS
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